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My father was strongly allergic to penicilline and last february he had problems with his lungs. In the hospital the doctors were informed by us about my father's allergy, but they did an allergic test to him (a small injection on the arm) all the same. They concluded that my father was not allergic and, after half an hour, gave him a pill: after five minutes my father was hit by (they said that) an anaphylactic shock and died after few ours of agony. The doctors said that the pill was the medicine called Ciproxin (a chinolonic, as I have known after), but my father had been cured with this kind of medicine (via intravein) a lot of times before and didn't show any sign of allergic reaction. Is it possible that such a violent and lethal reaction was due to Ciproxin ? Is it possible that the allergic test was the cause (I've read that these kind of test are really dangerous). Just another question. I've read that the first medicine to give to the patient in case of anaphylactic shock is adrenaline (epinephrine), but in the doctors report of my father's case I found that they gave him some corticosteroid in the first phase of the shock. Adrenaline was given just a couple of hours after. Is that a common practice or adrenaline should have been provided as soon as possible ?